Instrument Rating

112 flashcards by MentisLibrary

Instrument-specific study for the FAA instrument rating: IFR regulations and currency, en route and approach charts, holding, departures and arrivals, ILS and RNAV approaches, clearances and reports, attitude instrument flying, and IFR weather.

What aeronautical experience does 14 CFR 61.65 require for an instrument airplane rating?
50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command, at least 10 of which must be in airplanes, and 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time including at least 15 hours of instrument flight training from an authorized instructor.
What is the long instrument cross-country required before the practical test?
A cross-country of at least 250 nautical miles flown under IFR along airways or ATC-directed routing, with an instrument approach at each airport and three different kinds of approaches flown with the use of navigation systems.
What keeps a pilot instrument current?
Within the preceding 6 calendar months: six instrument approaches, holding procedures and tasks, and intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems.
What happens when instrument currency lapses?
The pilot has another 6 calendar months to regain currency using a safety pilot or an approved training device. Once 12 calendar months have passed since currency expired, an instrument proficiency check is required.
What qualifications must a safety pilot have?
At least a private pilot certificate with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft, adequate vision forward and to each side, and the aircraft must have fully functioning dual controls.
What two things are required to operate under IFR in controlled airspace?
A filed IFR flight plan and an ATC clearance.
What fuel does an IFR flight require?
Enough to fly to the first airport of intended landing, then to the alternate if an alternate is required, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
When is an alternate airport not required on an IFR flight plan?
When, for at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the forecast ceiling is at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation and the visibility is at least 3 statute miles.
What are the standard alternate minimums?
For an airport with a precision approach, a 600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. For a nonprecision approach, an 800 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles. If the airport has no instrument approach, the ceiling and visibility must allow a descent from the minimum en route altitude, an approach, and a landing under basic VFR.
What instruments and equipment does 14 CFR 91.205(d) require for IFR flight?
Everything required for VFR plus a generator or alternator, two-way radio and navigation equipment suitable for the route, a gyroscopic rate of turn indicator, a slip skid indicator, a sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure, a clock with a sweep second hand or digital presentation, a gyroscopic pitch and bank indicator, and a gyroscopic direction indicator.
How recently must a VOR receiver have been checked for IFR use?
Within the preceding 30 days. The pilot must record the date, place, bearing error, and sign the record.
What are the VOR check tolerances?
Plus or minus 4 degrees at a VOT or a certified ground checkpoint, plus or minus 6 degrees at a certified airborne checkpoint or over a prominent landmark on a selected radial at least 20 nautical miles out, and a maximum of 4 degrees difference between two receivers on a dual VOR cross-check.
Which inspections are required specifically for IFR flight?
The altimeter system and static pressure system must have been tested within the preceding 24 calendar months, and the transponder within the preceding 24 calendar months.
What are the minimum altitudes for IFR operations when no altitude is published?
1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 nautical miles of the course in non-mountainous terrain, and 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 nautical miles in designated mountainous areas.
After a communications failure, what route should a pilot fly?
The route assigned in the last clearance. If being vectored, the direct route to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. If neither, the route ATC advised to expect. If none of those, the route filed in the flight plan.
After a communications failure, what altitude should a pilot fly?
For each route segment, the highest of the last assigned altitude, the minimum altitude for IFR operations on that segment, or the altitude ATC advised to expect.
After a communications failure, when should a pilot leave the clearance limit?
If the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins, start the descent and approach as close as possible to the expect further clearance time, or if none was received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival from the filed flight plan. If it is not such a fix, leave at the expect further clearance time, or proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and start down at the estimated time of arrival.
What three conditions must be met to descend below DA or MDA?
The aircraft must be continuously in a position from which a normal descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate using normal maneuvers, the flight visibility must be at least that prescribed for the approach, and at least one of the listed visual references must be distinctly visible and identifiable.
What limit applies when the approach light system is the only visual reference?
The pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights alone, unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible.
What IFR cruising altitudes apply in uncontrolled airspace?
On a magnetic course of 0 through 179 degrees, odd thousands MSL. On 180 through 359 degrees, even thousands MSL.
What altimeter setting is used at and above 18,000 feet MSL?
29.92 inches of mercury, so indicated altitude becomes a flight level.
Do takeoff minimums apply to a Part 91 flight?
No. Part 91 operators have no takeoff minimums, though published takeoff minimums and departure procedures exist and apply to commercial operators.
What do MEA, MOCA, MRA, MCA, and MAA mean?
Minimum en route altitude, which guarantees obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage. Minimum obstruction clearance altitude. Minimum reception altitude for identifying an intersection. Minimum crossing altitude for a fix. Maximum authorized altitude for a segment.
What does a minimum crossing altitude tell a pilot?
The lowest altitude at which a fix may be crossed when proceeding toward a higher minimum en route altitude, so the climb must begin before reaching the fix.
What is an OROCA?
The off-route obstruction clearance altitude for a latitude and longitude quadrangle, giving 1,000 feet of clearance in non-mountainous terrain and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous terrain.
What are the dimensions of a Victor airway?
8 nautical miles wide, 4 nautical miles either side of the centerline, extending from 1,200 feet above the surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
How are compulsory and non-compulsory reporting points shown on an en route chart?
A solid filled triangle marks a compulsory reporting point. An open triangle marks a point to be reported only when requested by ATC.
What is a changeover point?
The point along an airway where a pilot should change from the navaid behind to the navaid ahead. Where it is not the midpoint between the two facilities, a changeover point symbol shows the distance to each.
What does the minimum safe altitude on an approach chart provide?
1,000 feet of obstacle clearance within 25 nautical miles of the identified navigation facility or waypoint, for emergency use only.
What is a terminal arrival area on an RNAV approach chart?
A sector arrangement around the approach, usually straight-in, left base, and right base areas within about 30 nautical miles of an initial approach fix, each with a minimum altitude that gives obstacle clearance.